Download link for NBME 1
Download link for NBME 2
Download link for NBME 3
Download link for NBME 4
Download link for NBME 5
Download link for NBME 6
Download link for NBME 7
Download link for NBME 11
Download link for NBME 12
Download link for NBME 13
Download link for NBME 15
Download link for NBME 16
Download link for NBME 17
Download link for NBME 18
Download link for NBME 19
Download link for NBME 20
Download link for NBME 21
Download link for NBME 22
Download link for NBME 23
Download link for NBME 24
Saturday 28 March 2020
NBME 23 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 23 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 22 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 22 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 21 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 21 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 20 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 20 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 19 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 19 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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CLICK HERE TO DOWNLOAD
NBME 18 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 18 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 17 FOR DOWNLOAD (USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 17 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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DOWNLOAD NBME 16 ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 16 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 15 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 15 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 13 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 13 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 12 FOR DOWNLOAD( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 12 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 11 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 11 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 7 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 7 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 6 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 6 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 5 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1 )
Download link for NBME 5 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 4 FOR DOWNLOAD (USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 4 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 3 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 3 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
NBME 2 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 2 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
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NBME 1 FOR DOWNLOAD ( USMLE STEP 1)
Download link for NBME 1 . Please understand that to keep the site working for free , there is a 5 second ad which will be displayed after you click the download button. After watching the ad for 5 seconds , press skip ad button on top right side of the screen and proceed with the download.
If there is any issue with the download , let us know in the comment section. Thanks
Monday 6 January 2020
First Aid 2020 for USMLE Step 1 is available for download.
Please wait 5 seconds and press "skip ad" button on top right corner.
http://pladollmo.com/107177/first-aid-for-usmle-2020
Thursday 10 April 2014
Friday 28 March 2014
Resources Related To Goljan - USMLE Prep.
Hi there. You can download almost every "extra" resource for USMLE by Goljan. If download links are broken then please notify us by posting a comment. Don't forget to say thanks.
All links contain ads so you have to wait 5 seconds and then click skip add button on the top right corner of the page.
Goljan Audio. (After clicking the link, wait 5 seconds and press "skip ad" button on top right corner of the page)
Goljan - Systemic Pathology Notes.
Goljan - General Pathology Notes.
Goljan - 100 Page High Yield Notes
Goljan High Yield
Goljan Supplemental Notes
Goljan High Yield 36 Pages
Integrated Pathology Notes
Key Points
New Goljan Notes.
Goljan Pathology Questions ( Will update soon )
Goljan Comprehensive Path Exams.( updated ) ---
All links contain ads so you have to wait 5 seconds and then click skip add button on the top right corner of the page.
Goljan Audio. (After clicking the link, wait 5 seconds and press "skip ad" button on top right corner of the page)
Goljan - Systemic Pathology Notes.
Goljan - General Pathology Notes.
Goljan - 100 Page High Yield Notes
Goljan High Yield
Goljan Supplemental Notes
Goljan High Yield 36 Pages
Integrated Pathology Notes
Key Points
New Goljan Notes.
Goljan Pathology Questions ( Will update soon )
Goljan Comprehensive Path Exams.( updated ) ---
Thursday 19 December 2013
The future of USMLE
Hi there,
I recently read an article in which,possible changes to USMLE were discussed.It seemed as if USMLE will undergo some substantial changes couple years from now. The changes will be implemented after the year 2016. Some of the important changes are described in the image below.
I recently read an article in which,possible changes to USMLE were discussed.It seemed as if USMLE will undergo some substantial changes couple years from now. The changes will be implemented after the year 2016. Some of the important changes are described in the image below.
Friday 13 December 2013
USMLE STEP 1 MINIMUM PASSING SCORE RAISED FROM 188 TO 192.
Hi there,
As you can see.The minimum passing score of usmle step 1 has been raised from 188 to 192.This change will be applied to Step 1 examinees testing on or after January 1, 2014.
As you can see.The minimum passing score of usmle step 1 has been raised from 188 to 192.This change will be applied to Step 1 examinees testing on or after January 1, 2014.
This announcement describes a change in the Step 1 examination minimum passing score that will affect examinees testing on or after January 1, 2014.
As stated in the USMLE Bulletin of Information and as explained in a previous posting to the USMLE website, the minimum passing score for each USMLE Step examination is reviewed periodically and may be adjusted at any time.
At its December 2013 meeting, the Step 1 Committee conducted a review of the USMLE Step 1 examination minimum passing score. During the meeting, the Committee considered information from multiple sources, including:
- Recommendations from independent groups of physicians who participated in content-based standard-setting activities in 2013;
- Results of surveys of various groups (e.g., state licensing representatives, medical school faculty, examinees) concerning the appropriateness of current passing requirements for the Step 1 examination;
- Data on trends in examinee performance;
- Data on precision of pass/fail classifications.
As a result of its review, the Step 1 Committee decided to raise the recommended Step 1 minimum passing score from 188 to 192.
This change will be applied to Step 1 examinees testing on or after January 1, 2014.
Friday 8 November 2013
Information Regrading MRCS(Membership of the Royal College of Surgeons).
MRCS
It is the membership of the royal college of surgeons.All royal colleges of surgeons have worked together to produce the intercollegiate MRCS.
Examination:-
MRCS examination consists of two parts.
Part A is a written paper using multiple choice questions
Part B is an objective structured clinical examination.
All four colleges use the Part A MCQ paper.The Part B OSCE is used by three UK colleges,leading to the intercollegiate membership diploma,MRCS.Currently the royal college of surgeons in Ireland uses its own Part B examination,leading to membership of the royal college of surgeons in Ireland.
Entry Requirements:-
To meet the entry requirements for the part A examination,candidates must hold a recognized medical qualification.There is currently no limit to the number of times a candidate can write the Part A examination but in the near future it may change to 6 attempts.
Part A:-
Part A of the MRCS is a four hour long examination consisting of two multiple choice papers,each of two hours duration comprising 135 questions each.The paper cover generic sciences and applied knowledge,including the core knowledge in the all specialties.
Note:- There is a short break between the two halves.
Syllabus of Part A:-
Each paper is constructed to test across the syllabus.As a guide,the number of questions covering each topic include:
Paper 1- Applied basic sciences
Paper 2- Principles of surgery in general
Paper 1 of Part A:-
Applied surgical anatomy- 45 MCQS
Ths include the gross anatomy as well as questions on developmental and imaging anatomy
Physiology- 45 MCQS
This includes 12 questions on general physiological principles covering thermoregulation,metabolic pathways,sepsis and septic shock, fluid balance,metabolic acidosis/alkalosis,and colloid and crystalloid solutions
System specific physiology include
Pathology - 45 Questions
This includes 20-25 questions on general principles of pathology:-
System specific pathlogy ( 22-26 questions)
Syllabus for Paper 2:-
Clinical problem solving - 135 MCQs
This includes 45 questions on principles of surgery and 90 questions on surgical specialities
Principles of Surgery in general:-
Surgical Specialities - (90 MCQS)
The Part B OSCE Tests:-
It includes clinical knowledge and its application,professionalism,procedural skills including decision-making,problem solving ,situational awareness and judgement,organization,planning and patient safety communication skills.
There are 16 stations and 4 rest stations each of 9 mins.Candidates will start at different points in the circuit.The stations assess the knowledge and skills in five main subject ares. 12 stations test generic knowledge and are compulsory for all candidates.To allow for differences in training,there are 4 specialty stations.Candidates select their specialty context at the time of application.
In each of the 5 subject ares,six domains are tested
Subjects:-
General advice for giving MRCS papers
It is the membership of the royal college of surgeons.All royal colleges of surgeons have worked together to produce the intercollegiate MRCS.
Examination:-
MRCS examination consists of two parts.
Part A is a written paper using multiple choice questions
Part B is an objective structured clinical examination.
All four colleges use the Part A MCQ paper.The Part B OSCE is used by three UK colleges,leading to the intercollegiate membership diploma,MRCS.Currently the royal college of surgeons in Ireland uses its own Part B examination,leading to membership of the royal college of surgeons in Ireland.
Entry Requirements:-
To meet the entry requirements for the part A examination,candidates must hold a recognized medical qualification.There is currently no limit to the number of times a candidate can write the Part A examination but in the near future it may change to 6 attempts.
Part A:-
Part A of the MRCS is a four hour long examination consisting of two multiple choice papers,each of two hours duration comprising 135 questions each.The paper cover generic sciences and applied knowledge,including the core knowledge in the all specialties.
Note:- There is a short break between the two halves.
Syllabus of Part A:-
Each paper is constructed to test across the syllabus.As a guide,the number of questions covering each topic include:
Paper 1- Applied basic sciences
Paper 2- Principles of surgery in general
Paper 1 of Part A:-
Applied surgical anatomy- 45 MCQS
Ths include the gross anatomy as well as questions on developmental and imaging anatomy
- Abdomen,pelvis and perineum 12 MCQs
- Thoras 6 MCQS
- Head,neck and spice 9 MCQS
- Upperlimb and breasts 8 MCQS
- Central,peripheral and autonomic nervous systems 4 MCQS
- Lower limb 6 MCQS
Physiology- 45 MCQS
This includes 12 questions on general physiological principles covering thermoregulation,metabolic pathways,sepsis and septic shock, fluid balance,metabolic acidosis/alkalosis,and colloid and crystalloid solutions
System specific physiology include
- Respiratory system 6 MCQS
- Gastrointestinal system 4 MCQS
- Renal system 6 MCQS
- Endocrine system(including glucose hemeostasis) 4 MCQS
- Cardiovascular system 6 MCQs
- Thyroid and parathyroid 4 MCQS
- Nervous system 3 MCQS
Pathology - 45 Questions
This includes 20-25 questions on general principles of pathology:-
- Inflammation 3 MCQs
- Vascular disorders 3 MCQs
- Surgical hematology 1-2 MCQS
- Wound healing and cellular healing 1-2 MCQS
- Tumours 6 MCQS
- Disorders of growth 3 MCQS
- Surgical immunology 3 MCQS
System specific pathlogy ( 22-26 questions)
- Nervous systerm 1-2 MCQs
- Breast disorders 4 MCQS
- Endocrince systerms 1-2 MCQS
- CVS 3 MCQs
- Lymph reticular system 1-2 MCQS
- Respiratory system 1-2 MCQS
- Genitourinary system 3 MCQS
- Musculoskeletal system 3 MCQS
- GIT 5 MCQS
Syllabus for Paper 2:-
Clinical problem solving - 135 MCQs
This includes 45 questions on principles of surgery and 90 questions on surgical specialities
Principles of Surgery in general:-
- Preoperative care 8 MCQS
- Surgical techniques 6 MCQs
- Post-operative care 4 MCQS
- Oncology 8 MCQS
- Management/legal topics 4 MCQS
- Microbiology 6 MCQs
- Emergency medicine 9 MCQS
Surgical Specialities - (90 MCQS)
- Cardiothoracic 6 MCQs
- Upper gastro intestinal 4-5 MCQS
- Hepatobiliary and pancreatic 5 MCQs
- Colo rectal 6 MCQS
- Trauma/orthopedics 7-8 MCQS
- Oro-maxilla-facial 2 MCQs
- Neurosurgery 6 MCQs
- Plastics 6 MCQs
- Pediatrics 6 MCQs
- Vascular 7 MCqs
- Abdominal 9 MCQS
- Breast 4-5 BCQS
- Endocrine 6 BCQs
- Transplant 3 BCQs
- ENT 6 MCQS
- Urology 7 MCQS
The Part B OSCE Tests:-
It includes clinical knowledge and its application,professionalism,procedural skills including decision-making,problem solving ,situational awareness and judgement,organization,planning and patient safety communication skills.
There are 16 stations and 4 rest stations each of 9 mins.Candidates will start at different points in the circuit.The stations assess the knowledge and skills in five main subject ares. 12 stations test generic knowledge and are compulsory for all candidates.To allow for differences in training,there are 4 specialty stations.Candidates select their specialty context at the time of application.
In each of the 5 subject ares,six domains are tested
Subjects:-
- Anatomy and surgical pathology
- Surgical skills and patient safety
- Communication skills
- Clinical skills
- Applied surgical science and critical care
Domains:-
- Clinical knowledge
- Clinical skills
- Technical skills
- Communication
- Decision making and problem solving
- Organization and planning
Most of the students are examined by the surgeon.The marking scheme is a matrix in which the stations are marked using several domains.There is a structural mark sheet for each station.The mark sheet includes a holistic judgement of the candidate.Candidates must reach overall pass mark set for Part B.They must also achieve a minimum score in each of the domains
A variant of the contrasting groups method is used for setting the overall mark.
Anatomy and surgical pathology
- Three stations - two manned and one unmanned
- in the manned stations there is questioning of applied anatomy
- in the unmanned station there are projection images and photographs
- Two manned stations
- Surgical skills will be tested for example,knot tying and suturing
- Patient safety will be tested hand for example washing,patient positioning,use of tourniquets etc
- Three stations - two manned and one unmanned
- The manned stations examine skills such as talking with colleagues and relatives
- The unmanned station tests written communication skills such as preparing a discharge letter
Applied surgical science and critical care
- Three stations - one manned and two unmanned
- The manned station tests the application of patho physiological processes
- The two unmanned stations tests interpretations of images and results
Clinical skills.
- Five stations
- Two manned(one generic and one specialty) for history taking.
- Three manned( one generic and two specialty) for physical examination
1.Try to give MRCS part 1 after house job.It is available in Pakistan .
2. MRCS 2 - Ideally done after 2 years of surgical training.
Saturday 10 August 2013
The United States Medical Licensing Examination(USMLE) is a multi-part professional exam.Medical Doctors are required to pass this examination before being permitted to practice to medicine in USA.
The USMLE assesses a physicians's ability to apply knowledge,concepts,principles,and to determine fundamental patient-centered skills.
Students and graduates of medical school outside USA and Canada register for Step 1 and Step 2 through Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduate(ECFMG)
Exam Format
The exam consists of three parts or famous "STEPS".
The Usmle first started out as a paper examination,converting in 2004 to a computer based multiple choice examination.The test can be taken at Thomson Prometric test centers worldwide.However,the step 2 CS and the step 3 can only be taken in the USA.
USMLE STEP 1
It covers the following subjects,in both systemic(general and individual anatomical characteristics) and procedural(functional,therapeutic,environmental , and abnormally) themes:
Step 1 is an 8 hour computer-based exam consisting of 336 multiple-choice questions(MCQ's) divided into seven blocks each consisting of 48 questions.Some questions include audio and video.Each block must be finished withing an hour.The remaining hour is break time.
The step 1 score is frequently used in medical residency applications as a measure of a candidate's likelihood to succeed in that particular residency(and on the specialty's boards exams).More competitive residency programs such as radiology,ophthalmology,plastic surgery and dermatology are usually off limits to FMGs but they may have a fair shot if they have exceptionally high score.
The USMLE score is just one of many factors considered by residency programs in selecting applicants.
The overall pass rate for first time USMLE step 1 test takes is 73% for international medical graduates.
USMLE STEP 2
It is designed to assess whether medical school students or graduates can apply medical knowledge,skills and understanding of clinical science essential for provision of patient care under supervision.Step 2 is further divided into two separate exams.
Step 2-CK :-USMLE step 2 CK is designed to assess clinical knowledge through a traditional,multiple choice examination.The subjects included in this exam are clinical sciences like
Step 2-CS :- USMLE step 2 CS is designed to assess clinical skills through simulated patient interactions,in which the examinee interacts with standardized patients portrayed by actors.The cost for this test is approx 1200 US dollars, plus added expenses related to travel,lodging and food.The examination if offered in five cities namely,Philadelphia,Chicago,Atlanta,Houston and Los angeles.
There are 12 standardized patients(SPs) and has 15-minutes to complete history taking and clinical examination for each patient,and then 10 more minutes to write a patient note describing the findings,initial differential diagnosis list and a list of initial tests.
USMLE STEP 3
It is the final exam in the USMLE series designed to assess whether a medical school graduate can apply medical knowledge and understanding of biomedical and clinical science essential for the unsupervised practice of medicine.FMGs can take step 3 before starting residency in about 10 US states.
The first day of testing includes 336 multiple choice items divided into 7 blocks,each consisting of 48 items.Examinees must complete each block within sixty minutes.
The second day of testing includes 144 multiple choice items,divided into 4 blocks of 36 items.Examinees are required to complete each block withing 45 minutes.Approximately 3 hours are allowed to there multiple choice questions.Also on the second day,there are nince clinical case simulations.There, the examiness are required to manage patients in real-time case simulations.Examiness enter orders for medications and/or investigations into the simulation software,and the condition of the patient changes accordingly.Each case must be managed in a maximum of 25 minutes of actual time. 45-60 mins are available for break time on each of the two days of testing.
The USMLE assesses a physicians's ability to apply knowledge,concepts,principles,and to determine fundamental patient-centered skills.
Students and graduates of medical school outside USA and Canada register for Step 1 and Step 2 through Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduate(ECFMG)
Exam Format
The exam consists of three parts or famous "STEPS".
- Step 1
- Step 2 (CK and CS)
- Step 3
The Usmle first started out as a paper examination,converting in 2004 to a computer based multiple choice examination.The test can be taken at Thomson Prometric test centers worldwide.However,the step 2 CS and the step 3 can only be taken in the USA.
USMLE STEP 1
It covers the following subjects,in both systemic(general and individual anatomical characteristics) and procedural(functional,therapeutic,environmental , and abnormally) themes:
- Anatomy
- Physiology
- Pharmacology
- Interdisciplinary topics,such as nutrition,genetics,and aging
- Behavioral sciences
- Biochemistry
- Pathology
- Microbiology
Step 1 is an 8 hour computer-based exam consisting of 336 multiple-choice questions(MCQ's) divided into seven blocks each consisting of 48 questions.Some questions include audio and video.Each block must be finished withing an hour.The remaining hour is break time.
The step 1 score is frequently used in medical residency applications as a measure of a candidate's likelihood to succeed in that particular residency(and on the specialty's boards exams).More competitive residency programs such as radiology,ophthalmology,plastic surgery and dermatology are usually off limits to FMGs but they may have a fair shot if they have exceptionally high score.
The USMLE score is just one of many factors considered by residency programs in selecting applicants.
The overall pass rate for first time USMLE step 1 test takes is 73% for international medical graduates.
USMLE STEP 2
It is designed to assess whether medical school students or graduates can apply medical knowledge,skills and understanding of clinical science essential for provision of patient care under supervision.Step 2 is further divided into two separate exams.
Step 2-CK :-USMLE step 2 CK is designed to assess clinical knowledge through a traditional,multiple choice examination.The subjects included in this exam are clinical sciences like
- Medicine
- Surgery
- Pediatrics
- Psychiatry
- Obs/Gyn
Step 2-CS :- USMLE step 2 CS is designed to assess clinical skills through simulated patient interactions,in which the examinee interacts with standardized patients portrayed by actors.The cost for this test is approx 1200 US dollars, plus added expenses related to travel,lodging and food.The examination if offered in five cities namely,Philadelphia,Chicago,Atlanta,Houston and Los angeles.
There are 12 standardized patients(SPs) and has 15-minutes to complete history taking and clinical examination for each patient,and then 10 more minutes to write a patient note describing the findings,initial differential diagnosis list and a list of initial tests.
USMLE STEP 3
It is the final exam in the USMLE series designed to assess whether a medical school graduate can apply medical knowledge and understanding of biomedical and clinical science essential for the unsupervised practice of medicine.FMGs can take step 3 before starting residency in about 10 US states.
The first day of testing includes 336 multiple choice items divided into 7 blocks,each consisting of 48 items.Examinees must complete each block within sixty minutes.
The second day of testing includes 144 multiple choice items,divided into 4 blocks of 36 items.Examinees are required to complete each block withing 45 minutes.Approximately 3 hours are allowed to there multiple choice questions.Also on the second day,there are nince clinical case simulations.There, the examiness are required to manage patients in real-time case simulations.Examiness enter orders for medications and/or investigations into the simulation software,and the condition of the patient changes accordingly.Each case must be managed in a maximum of 25 minutes of actual time. 45-60 mins are available for break time on each of the two days of testing.
Thursday 1 August 2013
A Helpful Guide To Aga Khan University Admission Test.
I was able to contact one of my friends who successfully cleared the AKU admission test in 2012.We had a chat regarding AKU admission test.I enquired him about the strategy,tricks,tips,tactics and anything which could help students preparing for AKU admission test.So without wasting much time,here we go.
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Asalam Alikum and Hello,
First of all,thanks to almighty Allah for giving me the abilities to successfully clear the entry test of Aga Khan University ,conducted in the year 2012.I was personally requested by a friend of mine to write up an article which will help future test takes in developing efficient test taking strategies.
We must understand that getting into Aga Khan university is not a piece of cake.Competition for limited seats is extremely intense,hence the acceptance rate is very low.Mind you,just clearing the entry test will not automatically get you into the university.Your performance during high school years and interview are also the factors which will contribute significantly in your final selection.However,the single most important component out of these 3 components is the admission test as evidenced in AKU prospectus.
Before discussing the preparation material.I quickly want to go over some facts and figures. Each year,from around the world,more than 10,000 students sit for AKU admission test.Less than 2500 students are able to clear the entry test successfully.Out of the those 2500,approximately 100 students will be selected for a particular batch.I wanted to share these numbers not to frighten you but to encourage you in working more hard for your preparation.You can already see for yourself the level of competition that you are going to face on your test day and beyond.Better start preparing from now,instead of leaving the matter to the last minute.
I also wanted to make a point that your overall performance during your high school years will directly or indirectly determine the possible outcome of your entry test.It doesn't matter whether you are an A'level or F.sc student.If you have worked hard during your two years in high school.You won't be facing much trouble passing the entry test successfully.
While talking about A'level and intermediate system of education.I want to say that I
have heard these myths that "only A'level students(or F.SC) can clear the entry test as it is tailored to their method". Let me tell you one thing,this is all FALSE. Nobody has a clear and distinct advantage.Everyone has the opportunity to clear this test with ease,if they put enough hard work. These are just lies. The AKU administration has categorically said that they do not favor any particular system.
The people who set or make the question paper usually test concepts which overlap or are common in both systems of education.Yes,there might be certain questions which will be from the books of a particular system but those questions form the minority.The bulk of questions,like I said before,will be based on concepts tested in both systems of education.This brings me back to an another point.More often than not,many students try to read books of both systems in order to successfully clear the test.Personally speaking,I never used that strategy.I was a student of A'level and I never read books of intermediate system.I thought that , it was better for me to consolidate my concepts further by revising the books that I was already using.I didn't see much benefit in reading books of other system.On the real exam,I did not encounter any questions which I had no idea off..If you are an American high school student or student of any foreign country. Please try to concentrate and master the material given in your relevant board books.I highly recommend that approach.
As we all know practice makes a man perfect.This principle can also be applied while preparing for the entry test.I would suggest buying
SAT II Biology(Kaplan preferably)
SAT II Physics(Kaplan preferably)
SAT II Chemistry (Kaplan preferably)
I personally bought books written and published by Kaplan.The questions given in those books almost mirrored the questions I solved on my real exam.Please try to do all questions in that book.Don't forget to read the explanations of the correct answer.It doesn't matter whether you have answered the questions rightly or not.The explanations will further solidify your concepts or may give extra information which can be beneficial.
I cannot suggest any books for science reasoning component of the entry test.The questions presented in that component can be solved by using common sense.Nothing very difficult.
For mathematics portion.I would suggest that students should brush up their 8th/9th standard mathematics.
Questions on mathematics are not very difficult too.They can be tricky but are doable.
For the english portion.I would suggest learning some new words from any "word list for college students".Reading newspapers might also be helpful.If you have a good command over english language then I don't personally feel that you will encounter much difficulty going through that portion of admission test.For students who consider themselves weak in this area.I would recommend consulting an english teacher.He/she might be in a better position to discuss your weaknesses and offer you methods to improve your standard of english.I have posted some english questions which are similar in difficulty level to the questions on the real exam.Have a look, http://medical-student-resources.blogspot.com/2013/02/extra-practise-questions-for-aku.html
Lastly,I want to make some points regarding commercial review courses.Honestly speaking,I can't pass a judgement regarding them,since I never took one.They may work for some and not for others.It varies from individual to individual.If you believe that enrolling in one of those courses will help you in preparing for the test.Then you should go for it otherwise not.Although,I must mention that these courses are very expensive to begin with.Might as well check their prices before starting one.
Bottom line is,work hard,have patience and pray to Almighty.
Good luck.
Monday 8 July 2013
Medicine 2013 FCPS Part-1 Paper
1. Resistance varies indirect proportional to ?
a. Viscosity
b. Hematocrit
c.length of the vessel
d. radius of the vessel
e. velocity of the blood
Answer is = D
2.The difference of osmolarity between interstitial fluid and plasma is ?
a.1 mosm/l
b.2.5 mosm/l
c. 3 mosm/l
d. 5 mosm/l
e. No difference
Answer is = 1 mosm/l
3.Which of the following cranial nerves are parasympathetic ?
a. 3,4,7,10
b.3 ,7,9,10
c.2,3,6,7
d. 1 ,2 ,5,10
Answer is = b
4.Regarding QRS complex,what is inappropriate ?
a.Occurs due to ventricular depolarization
b.has +ve and -ve waves
c.Occurs just before ventricular systole.
d. Indicates atrial depolarization
Answer is = D
5.65% of filtered Na is reabsorbed from
a.PCT
b.DCT
c.loop of henle.
d.Collecting duct
Answer is a
6.Venous return depends upon ?
a.velocity of the blood
b.increased mean systemic filling pressure
c.cardiac output
d.stiffness of vessel
Answer is B
7.Volume remaining in the lungs after tidal volume expiration is ?
a.residual volume
b.expiratory reserve volume
c.FRC
d.vital capacity
e.TLC
Answers is C
8. Regarding thorax,find out the wrong statement
a.pump handle increases transverse diameter
b.abdominal type of respiration is seen in children
c.diaphragm is important muscle for respiration
d. xiphisternum is located at T 9 vertebrae.
Answer is B
9. In asthmatic patient allergen react directly with ?
a. mast cells
b. eosinophills
c.macrophages
d. epithelial cells
Answer is A
10. PTH increases CA re-absorption by acting on ?
a.pct
b. dct
c. loop of henle
d. collecting duct
Answer is B
11. Oxygen HB-dissociation curve shifts to the left due to ?
a. increased CO2
b. decreased PH
c. high altitude
d. carbon monoxide poisoning.
Answer is D
12. Elimination of aminoglycosides antibiotics from the body in elderly is decreased due to decreased ?
a. fat metabolism
b. hepatic metabolism
c. renal excretion
d.plasma protein binding
e. volume of distribution
Answer is C
13.Immune mediated disorders occur due to location of genes on ?
a.spleen
b.rbc
c.wbc
d.liver
e.kidney
Answer is C
14. Gastric emptying is decreased by
a.gastrin
b.CCK
c.secretin
d.GIP
Answer is B
15. Patient presented in ER with dyspnea ; Ph = 7.13 , Co2 = 55 mm hg , HCO3 = 26 mmol/l , Po2 = 49 mm hg ; He is K/C of COPD , what is the most likely diagnosis ?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c.respiratory acidosis with type 1 respiratory failure
d. fully compensated respiratory acidosis
e.respiratory acidosis with type-2 respiratory failure
Answer is E
16. Hamartoma is defined as ?
a.mass of mature disorganized tissue indigenous to that organ
b. ectopic rest of normal tissue
c. a tumor that can metastasize
d. a malignat tumor that can cause serious complications
Answer is A
17. The cutting of pituitary stalk will predominately lead to increased levels of which pituitary hormone ?
a. GH
b. prolactin
c. TSH
d. ACTH
e. FSH and LH
Answer is B
18. L- DOPA given in the treatment of parkinson's disease leads to decrease in levels of which hormone ?
a. Prolactin
b. GH
c. Cortisol
d. testosterone
Answer is A
!9. In the presence of ADH, the water is maximally reabsorbed from ?
a. PCT
b. cortical collecting tubule
c.medullary collecting duct
d. loop of henle
e. early distal tubule
Answer is A
20. Strong chemotactic agent is
a. C5a
b. C5b
c. C3b
d. opsonin
e. platelet
Answer is A
21. Carcinoma stains with which of the following ?
a. desmin
b. keratin
c. vimentin
d. pas
e. congo red
Answer is B
22. Which of the following malignancy is transmitted as autosomal dominant mode of inheritance ?
a. ca-calon
b. retinoblastoma
c. ca-breast
d. ca-live
Answer is B
23. A lady is having cervical lymph adenopathy and is diagnosed as a case of lymphoma, which immunological disorder she is most likely having ?
a. aids
b. sle
c. pan
d. ra
e. sjogren syndrome
Answer is A
24. First symptom that occurs due to hypopituitarism due to pituitary tumor would be ?
a. hypothyroidisn
b. hypogonadism
c. hypoglycemia
d. hypoadrenalism
e. hypovolumia
Answer is B
25. Which of the following is benign tumor ?
a. adenoma
b. hepatoma
c. melanoma
d. lymphoma
Answer is A
26. Which of the following has least malignant potential ?
a. fap
b. metaplastic polyp
c. tubular adenoma
d. villous adenoma
Answer is C
27. Which of the following statement is "incorrect" about metaplasia ?
a. one adult cell type replaces another cell type
b. irreversible
c.can occur in lungs
d. can occur in epithelial cells
e. protective change against chronic irritation
Answer is A
28. Oxytocin and ADh originates in ?
a. neurohypophysis
b. hypothalamus
c. adenohypophysis
d.thalamus
e. mid brain
Answer is B
29. Bad news provided by doctor should be ?
a. in front of nursing staff
b. by a psychiatrist
c. at bedside
d. in front of all the family members
e. by the concerned doctor in formal session in exclusivity
Answer is E
30.Best way to start communication with patient should be ?
a. by asking cross questions
b. by asking about illness
c. by asking about name , age, address , and occupation
d. by asking leading questions
Answer c
31. Hormone which increases protein deposition in skeletal muscles ?
a. estrogen
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. dihydrotestosterone
e. progesterone
answer is B
32. Growth hormone ?
a. affects metabolism of carbohydrates
b. causes skeletal and cartilage growth through somatomedins
c. has half life of 6-20 mins in circulation
d. is a hormone of pituitary gland
e. is a polypeptide
Answer is B
33. Which of the following organ causes bone growth by releasing peptide ?
a. brain
b. liver.
c.kidney
d.git
e. adrenal cortex
Answer is A
34. Formation of interstitial fluid increases with decreased ?
a. capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. capillary permeability
c. interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
d. lymphatic flow
e. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Answer is E
35. The post prandial state is characterized by ?
a. high blood levels of FFA and high levels of glucagon
b. high blood levels of FFA and low levels of glucagon
c. high blood levels of glucose and high levels of insulin
d. high blood levels of glucose and low levels of insulin
e. high blood levels of insulin and glucagon
Answer is C
36 .Which of the following is inappropriate for insulin ?
a. causes entry of glucose into cells of adipose tissue
b. is anabolic hormone
c. decreases gluconeogenesis
d. causes induction of lipoprotein lipase
e. increases glycogenolysis
Answer is E
37. Correct about ANS ?
a. all sympathetic are adrenergic
b. all para - sympathetic are cholinergic
c. all sympathetic are cholinergic
d. all para sympathetic are adrenergic
e. at autonomic ganglia all are adrenergic
Answer is B
38. Which of the following has highest pH ?
a. saliva
b. pancreatic juice
c. bile
d.gastric juice
Answer B
39. A 4 year boy presented with clinical features of failure tl thrive , recurrent sinusitis , otitis media and rti . He also gives h/o chronic diarrhea, there is family h/o such complaints, the most relevant investigation in this case to confirm the dignosis is ?
a. chloride sweat test
b. fat absorption test
c. jejunal biopsy
d. vit b-12 assay
e. serum immunoglobulin level
Answer is A
40. Small child present with malabsorption , foul smelling stool , steatorrhea , deficiency of following is likely to occur in this patient ?
a. folate
b.iron
c. ca
d. vit d
e. vit b-12
Answer is D
41. Regarding active transport, find out most appropriate ?
a. occurs in few cells
b. always means Na-K pump
c. always requires glucose
d.does not require energy
e. is carrier mediated and carriers proteins are enzymatic in nature
Answer is E
42.Tractus-solitarius contains ?
a. auditory neurons
b. 1st order neurons for taste
c. 2nd order neurons for taste
d. parasympathetic fibres related to facial nerve
Answer C
43. Sharp-fast pain is mediated by which of the following fiber ?
a. c -fiber
b. a-delta
c. beta
d. theta
Answer is B
44. Regarding thalamus , most appropriate statement is ?
a. associated with behavior and emotions
b.associated with temperature regulation
c. associated with water regulation
d.plays key role in sexual funtions
e.is relay centre for all somatic and special senses
Answers is E
45. Facial nerve collects taste information from ant 2/3 of tongue through its chorda tympani branch, functional component of taste sensation is ?
a.General somatic afferent
b. general visceral afferent
c.general visceral efferent
d.special somatic afferent
e.special visceral afferent
Answer is E
46. Nerve passing through foramen ovale is ?
a.maxially
b.mandibular
c.occulomotor
d.trochlear
Answer is B
47. Patient having deviation of angle of mouth,dribbling of saliva , can not close eye and wrinkle forehead , nerve must likely involved is ?
a. facial
b. maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
c. auriculo temporal
d.mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
Answer is A
48. Hairy cell leukoplakia is associated with
a. hiv
b. fungus
c. all
d. cll
Answer is A
49. Histological characteristic of TB is ?
a. acid fast bacili
b. caseation
c.gram+ve staining
d. giant cells
Answer is B
50. Vibration is carried by ?
a. Pacinian corpuscles
b. meissners corpuscles
c.ruffini corpuscles
d.nocieptors
Answer is A
51. Static pressure is carried by ?
a. ruffini corpuscles
b. pacinian corpuscles
c.meissners corpuscles
d. nociceptors
Answer is A
52. Myxoid degeneration is mostly associated with
a. carcinoid valve disease
b.infective endocarditis
c.libman-sack's endocarditis
d.marantic endocarditis
e.mitral valve prolapse
Answer is B
53. Among st the causes of fatty changes in liver, most frequent in our country is ?
a. alcohol
b.hbv and hcv
c. halothane
d. obesity
e.starvation
Answer is B
54. Regarding dysplasia, most appropriate ?
a.disarray of cells, having loss of architecture
b.pleomorphism
c. increased mitotic figures
d. increase in size of cell
Answer is A
55. Ischemic heart disease with or with out sequel that doesn't present with characteristic clinical features ?
a. chronic ihd
b/ prinzmental angina
c.stable angina
d. unstable angina
e. mi
Answer is B
56. A young chuld on anti-malarial passed cola colored urine , what could be the cause ?
a. g6pd deficiency
b. drug reaction
c. iron deficiency anemia
d. thalessemia
Answer is A
57. Grade-4 encephalopathy is caused by ?
a. alcohol
b. paracetomol
c. ethylene glycol
d. amphetamine
Answer is B
58. A 40 year male on att for last 3 weeks c/o joint pains , his serum uric acid is raised . which is culprit drug ?
a. isoniazid
b. ethambutol
c. pyrazinamide
d. rifampicin
e. streptomycin
Answer is C
59. Drug of choice for traveler's diarrhea ?
a. aluminium hydroxide
b. dipheno-oxylate
c. metaclopromide
d. sucralfate
Answer is B
60. Angina may be worsened by ?
a. atropine
b. salbutamol
c.theophylline
d. vasopressin
e.verapamil
answer is C
61. Synapses are absent in ?
a.dorsal horn of spinal cord
b. dorsal root ganglia
c.lateral horn of spinal cord
d. sympathetic chain ganglion
e.ventral horn of spinal cord
Answer is B
62. Muscles of back are supplied by ?
a. dorsal rami of spinal nerves
b.cervical plexus
c. Ventral rami of spinal nerves
Answer is A
63. Type of join between two pubic bones ?
a. syndesmosis
b.symphysis
c.primary cartilaginous join
d. fibrous joint
answer is B
64. Most appropriate regarding fibro-cartilage ?
a. is present in nose
b. contains type 2 collagen
c. is present in intervertebral discs
Answer is C
65. Junction b/w two epithelial cells that does not allow free movement of substance is called ?
a. zona adherence
b. tight junction
c. desmosomes
d. gap junction
Answer is B
66. Patient has suffered 3rd degree burns to arm and hand , he is worried about which of the following most likely complication ?
a. wound dehiscence
b. contracture
c. keloid
d.traumatic neuroma
Answer is B
67. Regarding mid brain find out most appropriate ?
a. cerebral aqueduct forms cavity of mid brain
b. posterior surface is marked by presence of 2 colliculi
c. tectum divides into 2 crus cerebrei
d. trochlear nerve emerges from anterior surface
Answer is A
68. Which of the following receives sub-capsular afferents ?
a. lymph node
b. tonsil
c.thymus
d. spleen
e.payer's patch
69. A polymorph leukocytosis is expected in ??
a. appendicular tumor
b. glandular fever
c. mi
d. typhoid and para-typhoid
e. chronic osteomyelitis
70. Correct about respiratory zone ?
a. terminal bronchioles to alveoli
b. alveolar duct and alveolar sac
c. respiratory bronchi to alveoli
d. medium size bronchi
71. End plate fiver of neuro muscular junction contains ?
a. acetyl cholinestrase
b.pre-synaptic ach vesicle
c. post synaptic ca vesicle
d. synthesizes ach
72. Hepatic pedicle contains ?
a.hepatic vein and cbd
b. hepatic artery, hepatic vein and cbd
c.portal vein and hepatic duct
d. portal vein , cbd and hepatic artery
73. Basal ganglia complex is unique that it contains ?
a. high copper
b. low copper
c. manganese
d. high mg
74. Regarding vertebra , find out most appropriate ?
a. lumber vertebrae is heart shaped
b. C-7 has long spinous process
c. thoracic forms transverse process
d. the thoracic vertebrae is kidney shaped
75. A young lady presented with lump in outer lateral quadrant of breast which of the following group of lymph nodes is involved ?
a. anterior axillary
b. apical
c. posterior
d. internal thoracic
76. right kidney is differentiated from left kidney by ?
a. color of kidney
b. no of coverings of kidney
c. relations of structures in hilum
d. sufaces and poles in kidney
e. weight and size of kidney
78. PDA is persistent part of the left ?
a. 4th arch
b. 5th arch
c. 6th arch
d. dorsal aorta
e. ventral aorta
79. Root of the right lung is crossed by ?
a. sub clavian vein
b.arch of aorta
c.azygous vein
d. right pulmonary artey
80. Vessel which supply derivatives of foregut
a. celiac artrey
b. SMA
c. IMA
d. splenic artery
81. Following will not form the boundary of inguinal canal ?
a. lacunar ligament
b. ext.oblique aponeurosis
c. transversalis fasicia
d. conjoint tendon
e. inguinal ligament
81. Patient treated via conservative surgery for ca colon , best marker for disease progression is ?
a. alpha feto protein
b. cea
c. b-hcg
d. erythropoietin
82. Structure found 2 feet away from ileo-cecal junction at anti - mesenteric border is most likely ?
a. omphalocele
b. meckel's diverticulum
c. volvulus
d.gastochisis
e. intussusceptions
83
a. Viscosity
b. Hematocrit
c.length of the vessel
d. radius of the vessel
e. velocity of the blood
Answer is = D
2.The difference of osmolarity between interstitial fluid and plasma is ?
a.1 mosm/l
b.2.5 mosm/l
c. 3 mosm/l
d. 5 mosm/l
e. No difference
Answer is = 1 mosm/l
3.Which of the following cranial nerves are parasympathetic ?
a. 3,4,7,10
b.3 ,7,9,10
c.2,3,6,7
d. 1 ,2 ,5,10
Answer is = b
4.Regarding QRS complex,what is inappropriate ?
a.Occurs due to ventricular depolarization
b.has +ve and -ve waves
c.Occurs just before ventricular systole.
d. Indicates atrial depolarization
Answer is = D
5.65% of filtered Na is reabsorbed from
a.PCT
b.DCT
c.loop of henle.
d.Collecting duct
Answer is a
6.Venous return depends upon ?
a.velocity of the blood
b.increased mean systemic filling pressure
c.cardiac output
d.stiffness of vessel
Answer is B
7.Volume remaining in the lungs after tidal volume expiration is ?
a.residual volume
b.expiratory reserve volume
c.FRC
d.vital capacity
e.TLC
Answers is C
8. Regarding thorax,find out the wrong statement
a.pump handle increases transverse diameter
b.abdominal type of respiration is seen in children
c.diaphragm is important muscle for respiration
d. xiphisternum is located at T 9 vertebrae.
Answer is B
9. In asthmatic patient allergen react directly with ?
a. mast cells
b. eosinophills
c.macrophages
d. epithelial cells
Answer is A
10. PTH increases CA re-absorption by acting on ?
a.pct
b. dct
c. loop of henle
d. collecting duct
Answer is B
11. Oxygen HB-dissociation curve shifts to the left due to ?
a. increased CO2
b. decreased PH
c. high altitude
d. carbon monoxide poisoning.
Answer is D
12. Elimination of aminoglycosides antibiotics from the body in elderly is decreased due to decreased ?
a. fat metabolism
b. hepatic metabolism
c. renal excretion
d.plasma protein binding
e. volume of distribution
Answer is C
13.Immune mediated disorders occur due to location of genes on ?
a.spleen
b.rbc
c.wbc
d.liver
e.kidney
Answer is C
14. Gastric emptying is decreased by
a.gastrin
b.CCK
c.secretin
d.GIP
Answer is B
15. Patient presented in ER with dyspnea ; Ph = 7.13 , Co2 = 55 mm hg , HCO3 = 26 mmol/l , Po2 = 49 mm hg ; He is K/C of COPD , what is the most likely diagnosis ?
a. Respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c.respiratory acidosis with type 1 respiratory failure
d. fully compensated respiratory acidosis
e.respiratory acidosis with type-2 respiratory failure
Answer is E
16. Hamartoma is defined as ?
a.mass of mature disorganized tissue indigenous to that organ
b. ectopic rest of normal tissue
c. a tumor that can metastasize
d. a malignat tumor that can cause serious complications
Answer is A
17. The cutting of pituitary stalk will predominately lead to increased levels of which pituitary hormone ?
a. GH
b. prolactin
c. TSH
d. ACTH
e. FSH and LH
Answer is B
18. L- DOPA given in the treatment of parkinson's disease leads to decrease in levels of which hormone ?
a. Prolactin
b. GH
c. Cortisol
d. testosterone
Answer is A
!9. In the presence of ADH, the water is maximally reabsorbed from ?
a. PCT
b. cortical collecting tubule
c.medullary collecting duct
d. loop of henle
e. early distal tubule
Answer is A
20. Strong chemotactic agent is
a. C5a
b. C5b
c. C3b
d. opsonin
e. platelet
Answer is A
21. Carcinoma stains with which of the following ?
a. desmin
b. keratin
c. vimentin
d. pas
e. congo red
Answer is B
22. Which of the following malignancy is transmitted as autosomal dominant mode of inheritance ?
a. ca-calon
b. retinoblastoma
c. ca-breast
d. ca-live
Answer is B
23. A lady is having cervical lymph adenopathy and is diagnosed as a case of lymphoma, which immunological disorder she is most likely having ?
a. aids
b. sle
c. pan
d. ra
e. sjogren syndrome
Answer is A
24. First symptom that occurs due to hypopituitarism due to pituitary tumor would be ?
a. hypothyroidisn
b. hypogonadism
c. hypoglycemia
d. hypoadrenalism
e. hypovolumia
Answer is B
25. Which of the following is benign tumor ?
a. adenoma
b. hepatoma
c. melanoma
d. lymphoma
Answer is A
26. Which of the following has least malignant potential ?
a. fap
b. metaplastic polyp
c. tubular adenoma
d. villous adenoma
Answer is C
27. Which of the following statement is "incorrect" about metaplasia ?
a. one adult cell type replaces another cell type
b. irreversible
c.can occur in lungs
d. can occur in epithelial cells
e. protective change against chronic irritation
Answer is A
28. Oxytocin and ADh originates in ?
a. neurohypophysis
b. hypothalamus
c. adenohypophysis
d.thalamus
e. mid brain
Answer is B
29. Bad news provided by doctor should be ?
a. in front of nursing staff
b. by a psychiatrist
c. at bedside
d. in front of all the family members
e. by the concerned doctor in formal session in exclusivity
Answer is E
30.Best way to start communication with patient should be ?
a. by asking cross questions
b. by asking about illness
c. by asking about name , age, address , and occupation
d. by asking leading questions
Answer c
31. Hormone which increases protein deposition in skeletal muscles ?
a. estrogen
b. testosterone
c. cortisol
d. dihydrotestosterone
e. progesterone
answer is B
32. Growth hormone ?
a. affects metabolism of carbohydrates
b. causes skeletal and cartilage growth through somatomedins
c. has half life of 6-20 mins in circulation
d. is a hormone of pituitary gland
e. is a polypeptide
Answer is B
33. Which of the following organ causes bone growth by releasing peptide ?
a. brain
b. liver.
c.kidney
d.git
e. adrenal cortex
Answer is A
34. Formation of interstitial fluid increases with decreased ?
a. capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. capillary permeability
c. interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
d. lymphatic flow
e. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Answer is E
35. The post prandial state is characterized by ?
a. high blood levels of FFA and high levels of glucagon
b. high blood levels of FFA and low levels of glucagon
c. high blood levels of glucose and high levels of insulin
d. high blood levels of glucose and low levels of insulin
e. high blood levels of insulin and glucagon
Answer is C
36 .Which of the following is inappropriate for insulin ?
a. causes entry of glucose into cells of adipose tissue
b. is anabolic hormone
c. decreases gluconeogenesis
d. causes induction of lipoprotein lipase
e. increases glycogenolysis
Answer is E
37. Correct about ANS ?
a. all sympathetic are adrenergic
b. all para - sympathetic are cholinergic
c. all sympathetic are cholinergic
d. all para sympathetic are adrenergic
e. at autonomic ganglia all are adrenergic
Answer is B
38. Which of the following has highest pH ?
a. saliva
b. pancreatic juice
c. bile
d.gastric juice
Answer B
39. A 4 year boy presented with clinical features of failure tl thrive , recurrent sinusitis , otitis media and rti . He also gives h/o chronic diarrhea, there is family h/o such complaints, the most relevant investigation in this case to confirm the dignosis is ?
a. chloride sweat test
b. fat absorption test
c. jejunal biopsy
d. vit b-12 assay
e. serum immunoglobulin level
Answer is A
40. Small child present with malabsorption , foul smelling stool , steatorrhea , deficiency of following is likely to occur in this patient ?
a. folate
b.iron
c. ca
d. vit d
e. vit b-12
Answer is D
41. Regarding active transport, find out most appropriate ?
a. occurs in few cells
b. always means Na-K pump
c. always requires glucose
d.does not require energy
e. is carrier mediated and carriers proteins are enzymatic in nature
Answer is E
42.Tractus-solitarius contains ?
a. auditory neurons
b. 1st order neurons for taste
c. 2nd order neurons for taste
d. parasympathetic fibres related to facial nerve
Answer C
43. Sharp-fast pain is mediated by which of the following fiber ?
a. c -fiber
b. a-delta
c. beta
d. theta
Answer is B
44. Regarding thalamus , most appropriate statement is ?
a. associated with behavior and emotions
b.associated with temperature regulation
c. associated with water regulation
d.plays key role in sexual funtions
e.is relay centre for all somatic and special senses
Answers is E
45. Facial nerve collects taste information from ant 2/3 of tongue through its chorda tympani branch, functional component of taste sensation is ?
a.General somatic afferent
b. general visceral afferent
c.general visceral efferent
d.special somatic afferent
e.special visceral afferent
Answer is E
46. Nerve passing through foramen ovale is ?
a.maxially
b.mandibular
c.occulomotor
d.trochlear
Answer is B
47. Patient having deviation of angle of mouth,dribbling of saliva , can not close eye and wrinkle forehead , nerve must likely involved is ?
a. facial
b. maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
c. auriculo temporal
d.mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
Answer is A
48. Hairy cell leukoplakia is associated with
a. hiv
b. fungus
c. all
d. cll
Answer is A
49. Histological characteristic of TB is ?
a. acid fast bacili
b. caseation
c.gram+ve staining
d. giant cells
Answer is B
50. Vibration is carried by ?
a. Pacinian corpuscles
b. meissners corpuscles
c.ruffini corpuscles
d.nocieptors
Answer is A
51. Static pressure is carried by ?
a. ruffini corpuscles
b. pacinian corpuscles
c.meissners corpuscles
d. nociceptors
Answer is A
52. Myxoid degeneration is mostly associated with
a. carcinoid valve disease
b.infective endocarditis
c.libman-sack's endocarditis
d.marantic endocarditis
e.mitral valve prolapse
Answer is B
53. Among st the causes of fatty changes in liver, most frequent in our country is ?
a. alcohol
b.hbv and hcv
c. halothane
d. obesity
e.starvation
Answer is B
54. Regarding dysplasia, most appropriate ?
a.disarray of cells, having loss of architecture
b.pleomorphism
c. increased mitotic figures
d. increase in size of cell
Answer is A
55. Ischemic heart disease with or with out sequel that doesn't present with characteristic clinical features ?
a. chronic ihd
b/ prinzmental angina
c.stable angina
d. unstable angina
e. mi
Answer is B
56. A young chuld on anti-malarial passed cola colored urine , what could be the cause ?
a. g6pd deficiency
b. drug reaction
c. iron deficiency anemia
d. thalessemia
Answer is A
57. Grade-4 encephalopathy is caused by ?
a. alcohol
b. paracetomol
c. ethylene glycol
d. amphetamine
Answer is B
58. A 40 year male on att for last 3 weeks c/o joint pains , his serum uric acid is raised . which is culprit drug ?
a. isoniazid
b. ethambutol
c. pyrazinamide
d. rifampicin
e. streptomycin
Answer is C
59. Drug of choice for traveler's diarrhea ?
a. aluminium hydroxide
b. dipheno-oxylate
c. metaclopromide
d. sucralfate
Answer is B
60. Angina may be worsened by ?
a. atropine
b. salbutamol
c.theophylline
d. vasopressin
e.verapamil
answer is C
61. Synapses are absent in ?
a.dorsal horn of spinal cord
b. dorsal root ganglia
c.lateral horn of spinal cord
d. sympathetic chain ganglion
e.ventral horn of spinal cord
Answer is B
62. Muscles of back are supplied by ?
a. dorsal rami of spinal nerves
b.cervical plexus
c. Ventral rami of spinal nerves
Answer is A
63. Type of join between two pubic bones ?
a. syndesmosis
b.symphysis
c.primary cartilaginous join
d. fibrous joint
answer is B
64. Most appropriate regarding fibro-cartilage ?
a. is present in nose
b. contains type 2 collagen
c. is present in intervertebral discs
Answer is C
65. Junction b/w two epithelial cells that does not allow free movement of substance is called ?
a. zona adherence
b. tight junction
c. desmosomes
d. gap junction
Answer is B
66. Patient has suffered 3rd degree burns to arm and hand , he is worried about which of the following most likely complication ?
a. wound dehiscence
b. contracture
c. keloid
d.traumatic neuroma
Answer is B
67. Regarding mid brain find out most appropriate ?
a. cerebral aqueduct forms cavity of mid brain
b. posterior surface is marked by presence of 2 colliculi
c. tectum divides into 2 crus cerebrei
d. trochlear nerve emerges from anterior surface
Answer is A
68. Which of the following receives sub-capsular afferents ?
a. lymph node
b. tonsil
c.thymus
d. spleen
e.payer's patch
69. A polymorph leukocytosis is expected in ??
a. appendicular tumor
b. glandular fever
c. mi
d. typhoid and para-typhoid
e. chronic osteomyelitis
70. Correct about respiratory zone ?
a. terminal bronchioles to alveoli
b. alveolar duct and alveolar sac
c. respiratory bronchi to alveoli
d. medium size bronchi
71. End plate fiver of neuro muscular junction contains ?
a. acetyl cholinestrase
b.pre-synaptic ach vesicle
c. post synaptic ca vesicle
d. synthesizes ach
72. Hepatic pedicle contains ?
a.hepatic vein and cbd
b. hepatic artery, hepatic vein and cbd
c.portal vein and hepatic duct
d. portal vein , cbd and hepatic artery
73. Basal ganglia complex is unique that it contains ?
a. high copper
b. low copper
c. manganese
d. high mg
74. Regarding vertebra , find out most appropriate ?
a. lumber vertebrae is heart shaped
b. C-7 has long spinous process
c. thoracic forms transverse process
d. the thoracic vertebrae is kidney shaped
75. A young lady presented with lump in outer lateral quadrant of breast which of the following group of lymph nodes is involved ?
a. anterior axillary
b. apical
c. posterior
d. internal thoracic
76. right kidney is differentiated from left kidney by ?
a. color of kidney
b. no of coverings of kidney
c. relations of structures in hilum
d. sufaces and poles in kidney
e. weight and size of kidney
78. PDA is persistent part of the left ?
a. 4th arch
b. 5th arch
c. 6th arch
d. dorsal aorta
e. ventral aorta
79. Root of the right lung is crossed by ?
a. sub clavian vein
b.arch of aorta
c.azygous vein
d. right pulmonary artey
80. Vessel which supply derivatives of foregut
a. celiac artrey
b. SMA
c. IMA
d. splenic artery
81. Following will not form the boundary of inguinal canal ?
a. lacunar ligament
b. ext.oblique aponeurosis
c. transversalis fasicia
d. conjoint tendon
e. inguinal ligament
81. Patient treated via conservative surgery for ca colon , best marker for disease progression is ?
a. alpha feto protein
b. cea
c. b-hcg
d. erythropoietin
82. Structure found 2 feet away from ileo-cecal junction at anti - mesenteric border is most likely ?
a. omphalocele
b. meckel's diverticulum
c. volvulus
d.gastochisis
e. intussusceptions
83
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